Matt. 11:19 says,(KJV)
" The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners. But wisdom is justified of her children."
The Stephanus Textus Receptus(1550) says," ἦλθεν ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐσθίων καὶ πίνων καὶ λέγουσιν Ἰδού, ἄνθρωπος φάγος καὶ οἰνοπότης τελωνῶν φίλος καὶ ἁμαρτωλῶν καὶ ἐδικαιώθη ἡ σοφία ἀπὸ τῶν τέκνων αὐτῆς."
The text in question is,
"καὶ ἐδικαιώθη ἡ σοφία ἀπὸ τῶν τέκνων αὐτῆς", which translated is,
"But is justified (she) widom by children of her."
The TR also gives the parallel verse in Luke 7:35 essentially the same reading,
καὶ ἐδικαιώθη ἡ σοφία ἀπὸ τῶν τέκνων αὐτῆς πάντων, the only difference being πάντων(all) was added.
However, in the Nestle and NA 27 texts, it reads,
"καὶ ἐδικαιώθη ἡ σοφία ἀπὸ τῶν ἔργων αὐτῆς", which translates,
"But is justified wisdom by the deeds (of) her."
What is even more interesting is the parallel passage in Luke 7:35 says,
"καὶ ἐδικαιώθη ἡ σοφία ἀπὸ πάντων τῶν τέκνων αὐτῆς"
which essentially agrees with the TR and the KJV.
Question 1) How do we correctly interpret this passage? and
Question 2) Why the significant difference between the NA27 and TR in Matthew, but not in Luke?