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Biblical Hermeneutics

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    "This verse is about falling from "grace" (verse 18)...not 'salvation'" — Are you saying that there is salvation without grace? How does falling from grace differ from losing salvation?
    – Ray Butterworth
    Commented Jul 5 at 16:31
  • @RayButterworth If someone falls from grace, they are returning to the attempt of establishing their own righteousness. A believer does not lose salvation if they do this. They are allowing Satan's "ministers of righteousness" to keep them from growing any further in God's grace. No, there is not salvation without God's grace. All have been gifted God's grace, but not all receive the gift...by faith.
    – Mark Vestal
    Commented Jul 5 at 16:48
  • Then, how can one fall from grace without loosing salvation?
    – Dottard
    Commented Jul 5 at 20:47
  • @Dottard It is because falling from grace, and losing salvation mean different things. Question: Do you believe that one is saved (by God's grace) through having faith alone, and without any of our own works of righteousness? Basically, do you believe what Eph 2:8-9, and Eph 4:30 state? What exactly are you basing your hope for salvation on?
    – Mark Vestal
    Commented Jul 5 at 21:24
  • Absolutely!! I believe in salvation by Christ alone, through grace alone, by faith alone, as revealed in the scripture alone, to the glory of God alone. And that is the point - if one has fallen from grace, then there remains no mechanism for salvation at all. Therefore, one fallen from grace is not saved.
    – Dottard
    Commented Jul 5 at 22:05